New Updated Cisco CCIE Voice 350-030 Real Exam Download 251-260

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QUESTION 251

While testing a new Cisco Unified Communications Manager integration, it is determined that IP phones can place and receive calls from PBX phones but cannot place calls to the PSTN. Which two of these are possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)

 

A.      Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not sending the correct digits to the PBX.

B.      The IP phones’ CSS does not contain the partition assigned to the gateway.

C.      The gateway’s CSS does not contain the partition assigned to the IP phones.

D.      The PBX is restricting trunk-to-trunk transfers.

E.       The T1 to the PBX is using a different ISDN protocol than the T1 to the PSTN.

 

Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 252

Which three functions are performed by Cisco IP Media Streaming App Service? (Choose three.)

 

A.      provides an SCCP stack for four software devices: ANN, CFB, MOH, and MTP

B.      supports database change notification processing

C.      converts new MOH source files to separate .wav files for MOH codecs

D.      provides SDI trace, event logs, and perfmon counters

E.       adjusts volume levels of MOH source files

F.       provides audio data from .wav files for CFB and MTP

 

Answer: ABD

 

 

QUESTION 253

How can a dependecy record be used when deleting a device pool?

 

A.      The dependency record searches all databases for records that match the search parameter and returns all the record indices prior to deletion.

B.      The dependency records indicate where records are located in the database so they can be migrated to different records before deletion.

C.      The dependency record shows which records are associated with each record a user wants to delete.

D.      The dependency record indicates which members of a device pool are subsets of other device pools so they can be moved easily.

 

Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 254

Cadorna Inc. is planning a deployment of Cisco IP telephony using the centralized call processing model. The company has a headquarters location with 25 branches. They are interconnected with an MPLS network that provides full-mesh connectivity between all sites. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.      From an IP routing perspective on the enterprise side of the network, each site is two hops away from all other sites.

B.      From the Call Admission Control perspective of Cisco Unified Communications Manager, a service-provider IP WAN service that is based on MPLS is, in reality, equivalent to a hub-and-spoke topology without a hub site.

C.      This design requires that Call Admission Control be performed on the central site link independently of the branch links.

D.      The Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers need to be aware of the underlying MPLS network by setting the appropriate enterprise parameters.

E.       This design using MPLS will not allow Call Admission Control to be performed.

 

Answer: BC

 

 

QUESTION 255

On a WAN PPP link, what is the required bandwidth for three G.729 VoIP calls when cRTP is turned off, and what is it when cRTP is turned on? (Note: The payload size is 20 bytes.)

 

A.      cRTP off: 72.6 kb/s; cRTP on: 24.6 kb/s

B.      cRTP off: 90 kb/s; cRTP on: 36 kb/s

C.      cRTP off: 79.2 kb/s; cRTP on: 33.6 kb/s

D.      cRTP off: 26.4 kb/s; cRTP on: 11.2 kb/s

E.       cRTP off: 48 kb/s; cRTP on: 24 kb/s

 

Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 256

A DPA 7630 is being used to integrate a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster with an Octel voice-mail system. What should be configured in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to establish call paths to the DPA 7960?

 

A.      A 7960 IP phone should be configured for each call path.

B.      A VIP 30 IP phone should be configured for each call path.

C.      A CTI port should be configured for each call path.

D.      A CTI route point should be added with a Directory Number for each call path.

E.       A voice-mail port should be added for each call path.

 

Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 257

When using RSVP to dynamically set up end-to-end QoS across a heterogeneous network, there are several QoS levels that can be configured on the originating and terminating gateways. Which three statements correctly describe the differences between these three QoS Levels: controlled-load, guaranteed-delay, and best-effort? (Choose three.)

 

A.      With the controlled-load QoS level, if synchronized RSVP is attempted and fails, the call is released.

B.      With the controlled-load QoS level, if synchronized RSVP is attempted and fails, the call receives best-effort service.

C.      With the best-effort QoS Level, no RSVP synchronization is attempted and the call receives best-effort service.

D.      With the guaranteed-delay QoS level, if synchronized RSVP is attempted and fails, then if the acceptable QoS on the terminating gateway is controlled-load or guaranteed-delay, the call receives best-effort service.

E.       With the guaranteed-delay QoS level, if synchronized RSVP is attempted and fails, then if the acceptable QoS on either gateway is anything other than best-effort, the call is released.

 

Answer: ACE

 

 

QUESTION 258

If the response to a DNS query comes back with a TC bit set, it means that which two of these statements are true? (Choose two.)

 

A.      The size of the response exceeded 512 bytes, so only the first 512 bytes were returned by the server.

B.      The size of the response exceeded 1024 bytes, so only the first 1024 bytes were returned by the server.

C.      The size of the response exceeded 1500 bytes, so only the first 1500 bytes were returned by the server.

D.      The message was longer than the bandwidth would allow.

 

Answer: AD

 

 

QUESTION 259

In Cisco SS7 Interconnect-based networks, Signaling Link Terminal can terminate which type of link from the PSTN?

 

A.      T1/PRI

B.      A-Link or F-Link

C.      T1 with IMTs

D.      IMTs with bearer channels

E.       A-Link only

 

Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 260

Which of these is true about the 802.1Q frame header?

 

A.      802.1Q frame headers, which normally contain the destination host, source host, and protocol, are altered with additional information. After the source host, a 48-bit 802.1Q header is included, with 32 bits for the ether type (0x8000), 3 bits for the priority field (not used in this implementation), 1 bit for the canonical field (always 0), and 12 bits for the VLAN identifier. Following the VLAN header is the actual ether type for the frame and length information.

B.      802.1Q frame headers, which normally contain the destination host, source host, and protocol, are altered with additional information. After the source host, a 32-bit 802.1Q header is included, with 16 bits for the ether type (0x8100), 3 bits for the priority field (not used in this implementation), 1 bit for the canonical field (always 0), and 12 bits for the VLAN identifier. Following the VLAN header is the actual ether type for the frame and length information.

C.      802.1Q frame headers, which normally contain the destination host, source host, and protocol, are altered with additional information. After the source host, a 24-bit 802.1Q header is included, with 16 bits for the ether type (0x8100), 3 bits for the priority field (not used in this implementation), 1 bit for the canonical field (always 0), and 12 bits for the VLAN identifier. Following the VLAN header is the actual ether type for the frame and length information.

D.      802.1Q frame headers, which normally contain the destination host, source host, and protocol, are altered with additional information. After the source host, a 16-bit 802.1Q header is included, with 16 bits for the ether type (0x8000), 3 bits for the priority field (not used in this implementation), 1 bit for the canonical field (always 0), and 12 bits for the VLAN identifier. Following the VLAN header is the actual ether type for the frame and length information.

 

Answer: B

 

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